Here is the scenario I just ran into while playtesting a deck I am making and I was wondering if I am right or if it is just wishful thinking.
Say I have an {intangibl virtue} in play. Then I play a {selesnya charm} and put the 2/2 knight into play. Once he hits the BF he becomes a 3/3 because of the {intangible virtue}. Now if I populate and choose the knight as the target does the new knight enter the BF as a 3/3 or a 4/4?
In my opinion the new knight enters as a 4/4 because when I populated the knight I copied was a 3/3 and when the 3/3 knight enters the BF the effect from {intangible virtue} takes effect and now the new knight is a 4/4. If this is the case then this deck is going to be pretty nasty. If it is not the case then this deck will be pretty good. I have a feeling. That It is not the case though.
I don't believe it does cause it is not permenantly on the token. The populate I believe will have it come in as a normal token of what ever you populated.
I thought so too but when you copy something you copy the whole card as it is don't you?
The knight is a 2/2. It recieves the +1/+1 as a static buff. That is what turns it into a 3/3.
When you populate and copy the token, you copy a 2/2 token. You do not copy any other buffs it recieves as a permanent on the battlefield. If it had counters enchantments etc, you would still only get another 2/2 token when you populate.
Well that is what I feared. Oh well. Thanks for the help