If I use {Rings of Brighthearth} on an activated ability with x in its activation cost, do the rings copy the mana put into it or would x be 0?
Example: I pay 4 mana into {Magus of the Candelabra}, then 2 for {Rings of Brighthearth}, tapping 6 lands total. Would I untap 8 lands or 4 lands?
Unfortunate. Thanks!
Fortunate! Thanks :)
Quote from: Testset on February 19, 2014, 05:47:19 PM
{Twincast} a {Blaze}: double the pain.
Copies that make {X} = {0} are from things like {Isochron Scepters}, where you cast a copy of the exiled card without paying its mana cost.
You could also use a {Reverberate} if its mono red...
Quote from: Testset on February 19, 2014, 05:43:13 PM
Actually... It WOULD copy its {X} value:
706.2. (http://imtgapp.com/forum/index.php?action=imtg;area=rule;number=706.2.): When copying an object, the copy acquires the copiable values of the original object's characteristics and, for an object on the stack, choices made when casting or activating it (mode, targets, the value of X, whether it was kicked, how it will affect multiple targets, and so on).
I totally wrote this and then read llamas post and thought yeah x would be 0
But yes
Copying the ability is not copying it's cost and the X has been established for the copy
No longer second guessing, just need the rules to be easier to copy/past
Im actually enjoying learning where in right in figuring out the rules text. Helps alot in play, so many times after the fact I learned a lot about what could have been done